Showing posts with label Sample Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Sample Papers. Show all posts

RBI Assistant Grade - Model Paper ~ REASONING APTITUDE


REASONING APTITUDE 

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 
(1) 169 (2) 125 (3) 216 
(4) 27 (5) 343 

2. Pointing to a boy Meena said, “Ramesh is the son of my father-in-law’s only son. How is the Ramesh related to Meena? 
(1) Nephew (2) Son (3) Brother 
(4) Cannot be determine (5) None of these 

3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fourth, the sixth and the tenth letters of the word MANAGEMENT. Which of the following will be the first letter of the word? If no such word can be made, give ‘N’ as the answer and If more than one such words can be made give Y as the answer. 
(1) E (2)M (3) N (4) T (5) Y 

4. In a row of children, Janki is third to the right of Akansha, who is ninth from the left end of the row. What is Akansha position from the right end of the row? 
(1) 12th (2) 13th (3) 14th 
(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word APOCALYPTIC, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in English Alphabet? 
(1) None (2) One (3) Two 
(4) Three (5) More than Three

Directions (6-10): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the three statement to be true even if they seems to beat variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. 

6. Statements: Some leaves are flowers. No flower is fruit. Some fruit are trees. Some trees are plants. 
Conclusion: I. Some leaves are plants. 
II. All leaves are either plants or fruits. 
III. All plants are either trees or fruits. 
(1) only I follows (2) both II and III follows 
(3) only III follows (4) All follow 
(5) None follow 

7. Statements: All dogs are cats. All cats are rats. Some rats are snakes. 
Conclusions: I. Some cats are snakes. 
II. Some snakes are dogs. 
III. some rats are dogs 
(1) only I follows (2) only III follows 
(3) only II follows (4) both I and III follows 
(5) All follows

8. Statements: Some mobiles are television. Some televisions are computer. All computers are laptops. All laptops are machines. 
Conclusions: I. Some computers are mobiles. 
II. Some laptops are television. 
III. All computers are machines. 
(1) None follows (2) both I and II follow 
(3) both II and III follows (4) both I and III follows 
(5) None of these 

9. Statements: Some fans are coolers. Some coolers are AC. Some AC are refrigerator. All refrigerator are machines. 
Conclusions: I. Some machines are AC. 
II. Some AC are fans. 
III. No AC are fans 
(1) None follows (2) only I follows 
(3) either II or III follows 
(4) only I and either II or III follows 
(5) All follow 

10. Statements: All newspaper are magazines. All magazines are books. Some books are papers. Some papers are booklets. 
Conclusions: I. Some booklets are newspapers. 
II. All newspapers are books. 
III. some papers are newspapers. 
(1) both I and II follow (2) only I follow 
(3) only II follow (4) All follow 
(5) None of these 
Directions (11-15): These questions are based on the following arrangement. 

F 7 6 I G * $ L M 3 K C @ A R M 1 4 D % J # 2 9 P Q 3 

11. If all the symbols are dropped from the given arrangement, which of the following will be fourth to the right of tenth from the left end? 
(1) R (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) D (5) A 

12. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement each of which is either immediately followed or immediately preceded by a consonant but not both? 
(1) None (2) One (3) Two 
(4) Three (5) More than three 

13. If the position of ten elements from the right end is reversed which of the following will be fifth to the right of thirteenth from the right? 
(1) % (2) D (3) P 
(4) Q (5) None of these 

14. How many such consonants are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by another consonant? 
(1) None (2) One (3) Two 
(4) Three (5) More than three

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the given arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? 
(1) LK3 (2) D#J (3) @MA 
(4) I$* (5) R41 
Directions (16-18): In the following questions the symbols 
@, #, %, $, * are used with different meanings as follows 
P@Q means P is not smaller than Q. 
P#Q means P is not greater than Q. 
P%Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. 
P$Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. 
P*Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q. 

16. Statements: A#K, K@Z, Z%B, B*D 
Conclusion: I. D$K II. B$A III. B@A 
(1) only I and either II or III follow 
(2) only I follows (3) either II and III follow 
(4) both I and II follows (5) None of these 

17. Statements: W@V, V#S, S$A, A@B 
Conclusions: I. A%V II. S$B III. B@V 
(1) both I and II follow (2) both II and III follow 
(3) both I and III follow (4) All I, II and III follow 
(5) None of these 

18. Statements: M@L, K#L, K$N, N%O 
Conclusions: I. M%K II. L@N III. K$O 
(1) only I follows (2) only II follows 
(3) both II and III follows (4) both I and II follow 
(5) None of these 
Direction (19-20): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. 
D$E means D is wife of E 
D#E means D is son of E 
D%E means D is father of E 
D*E means D is sister of E 

19. Which of the following expressions represents the relationship ‘P is brother of H’? 
(1) H*P%K (2) P*H%K (3) H#K%P 
(4) H*K%P (5) None of these 

20. In H*P#Q%L, how is H related to L? 
(1) Cousin (2) Brother (3) Sister 
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 
Directions (21-25): Each of the following question is based on the following information. 
A,B,C,D,E,F and G are seven kids playing in the garden. They are wearing caps of different colours –red, blue, orange, green, pink, yellow and brown. Out of seven three are girls, No girl is wearing either red, yellow, or brown. D’s sister F is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown. A is wearing blue, while his sister B is not wearing green. E is wearing yellow, while his best friend G is a boy. 

21. What colour B is wearing?
(1) green (2) pink (3) brown 
(4) red (5) None of these 

22. What colour is G wearing? 
(1) red (2) Blue (3) orange 
(4) green (5) None of these 

23. What colour is C wearing? 
(1) Red (2) green (3) orange 
(4) pink (5) none of these 

24. What colours are the sister of A and D wearing? 
(1) pink & green (2) pink & yellow 
(3) orange & green (4) orange and brown 
(5) None of these 

25. Which group is denoting only girls? 
(1) BCE (2) BEF (3) BCF 
(4) None (5) None of these 
Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully to answer these question . 
I. Sonia, Sakshi, Monika, Nupur, Pallavi, Ankita and Neha are sitting in a circle and playing Antakshari. 
II. Monika, who is the neighbour of Nupur, is not the neighbour of Ankita. 
III. Pallavi is second to the left of Ankita. 
IV. Monika is second to the left of Neha, who is the neighbour of Salshi 

26. Which of the following is true? 
(1) Pallavi is the neighbour of Neha and Sonia. 
(2) Sakshi is the neighbour of Neha and Sonia 
(3) Ankita is the neighbour of Nupur and Sakshi 
(4) Sonia is the neighbour of Anikta and Monika 
(5) None of these 

27. Which of the following pair has the second person sitting to the right of the first person? 
(1) Ankita Sakshi (2) Monika Pallavi (3) Pallavi Neha 
(4) Monika Ankita (5) None of these 

28. Which of the following pair has the first person sitting third to the left of the second person? 
(1) Ankita sakshi (2) Neha Sonia (3) Neha Ankita 
(4) Monika Sonia (5) None of these 

29. Who is the immediate right of Neha? 
(1) Sakshi (2) Ankita (3) Pallavi 
(5) Sonia (5) None of these 

30. What is the position of Sonia? 
(1) to the immediate right of Ankita 
(2) second to the left of Sakshi 
(3) to the immediate right of Pallavi 
(4) only between Sakshi and Ankita 
(5) None of these 
Directions (31-35): In arrangement a machines when given an input of words, rearrange them following a particular rule 
Input: This chapter would give you basic concepts 
Step 1: basic this chapter would give you concepts 
Step 2: basic chapter this would give you concepts
Step 3: basic chapter concepts this would give you 
Step 4: basic chapter concept give this would you 
study the logic and answer the question that follow 

31. Input: “do not imitate others work” 
Which of the following will be the step 3 for the given 
input? 
(1) do others not imitate work 
(2) do imitate not others work 
(3) work do others imitate 
(4) do not others work imitate 
(5) there will be no 3rd step 

32. Input: “adequate safety arrangement are must for kids” 
Which of the following will be 2nd last step for the given input? 
(1) adequate are arrangement for kids safety must 
(2) adequate are arrangement for kids must safety 
(3) adequate are safety arrangement must for kids 
(4) adequate safety are arrangements must for kids 
(5) None of these 

33. Input: “Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information”. How many steps are required to rearrange the above input properly 
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 
(4) 2 (5) None of these 

34. Input: “most Indian leaders cannot even visualize free India”. Which of the following will be last step of above Input? 
(1) most Indian even leaders cannot visualize free 
India 
(2) cannot even free India Indian most leaders 
visualize 
(3) cannot even free India most Indian leaders 
visualize 
(4) cannot even free India Indian leaders most 
visualize 
(5) None of these 

35. Step IV: “it is figure anti-establishment from media”. Which of the following is the input of the above mentioned step 
(1) it is figure from anti-establishment media 
(2) media it is figure from anti-establishment 
(3) it is anti-establishment media from 
(4) cannot be determined 
(5) None of these 

Directions (36-40): In each of the questions given below, which one of the five figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued. 

ANSWERS
1). 1
2). 2
3). 5
4). 4
5). 5
6). 5
7). 2
8). 3
9). 4
10). 3
11). 2
12). 5
13). 3
14). 2
15). 3
16). 2
17). 5
18). 2
19). 1
20). 3
21). 5
22). 1
23). 2
24). 4
25). 3
26). 1
27). 5
28). 1
29). 3
30). 3
31). 5
32). 1
33). 2
34). 4
35). 5
36). 4
37). 3
38). 5
39). 2
40). 5 

All The Best

RBI Assistant Grade - Model Paper ~ INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE


RBI ASSISTANT MODEL PAPER 

Time Allowed: 120 Minutes                                                                              Maximum Marks: 200



Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions. 

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE 
1. This booklet contains 200 questions in all comprising the following four parts: 
Part - (i): Reasoning Aptitude (40 Question) 
Part – (ii): Numerical Ability (40 Question) 
Part – (iii): English Language (40 Question) 
Part – (iv): Computer Awareness (40 Question) 
Part – (v): General Awareness (40 Question) 

2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 

3. Before you start to answer the question you must check up this booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages and 
see that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any defect in this booklet, you must get it replaced immediately. 

4. The paper carries negative marking. 0.25 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer. 

5. You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, 
Roll number, Test Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start 
answering the questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. 
These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and 
you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark. 

6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the 
relevant question number by HB pencil or Black/ blue ball pen only. 

7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely 
/different from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be 
treated as cancelled. 

8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall. 

9. Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will render a candidate liable to such action/penalty as 
may be deemed fit. 

10. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult an d others easy. 
Do not spend too much time on any question. 

11. Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. 
Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them 
even switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using 
unfair means in the examination and action will be taken against them including cancellation of their 
candidature. 

12. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. 

IBPS Banking Awareness Test - Part 2 (IBPS BANK PO)


Following questions on banking are very important are SBI exam and upcoming IBPS PO exam:

1. Interest rate risk is a type of
(1) Credit risk     (2) Market risk          (3) Operational risk    (4) All the above    (5) None of these

2. Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters?
(1) RBI           (2) SEBI          (3) IBA         (4) UNIDO                  (5) UNESCO

3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India      (B) State Bank of India     (C) ICICI Bank   (D) Bank of India
(5) None of these

4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India      (B) Imperial Bank of India         (C) Bank of India            (D) Union Bank of India       (5) None of these

5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank            (B) IMF         (C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation           (5) None of these

6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank            (B) IMF       (C) International Developmental Association        (D) International Finance Corporation      (5) None of these

7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith        (B) Marshall      (C) J.M. Keynes                 (D) Pareto (5) None of these

8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India        (B) Central Bank of India     (C) Union Bank of India        (D) ICICI      (5) None of these

9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money
(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) increase both in the external and internal values of money
(5) None of these

10. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques      (B) credit cards      (C) demand drafts      (D) gift cheques   (5) None of these

11. The twelfth ‘Five Year Plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from-
(1) 2009-2014        (2) 2008 -2013        (3) 2007-2012        (4) 2012-2017       (5) 2010-2015

12. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to-
(1) Meet its current liabilities      (2) Service its share holders     (3) Meet its long term debt obligations      (4) Raise further capital     (5) None of these

13. An IPO is-
(1) Initial Price Offered by private limited company to its share holders.
(2) An offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public.
(3) Used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) A book building process
(5) None of these

14. A decreasing current ratio indicates-
(1) A stable liquidity       (2) An increasing liquidity     (3) A strained liquidity   (4) satisfactory current solvency     (5) None of these

15. SEBI has been imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P-notes’. What is   the full form of ‘P-notes’?
(1) permanent notes          (2) purchase notes     (3) participatory notes        (4) private notes      (5) None of these


Answers
1-2,
2-4, 
3-2, 
4-2, 
5-4, 
6-3, 
7-1, 
8-2, 
9-2, 
10-2, 
11-4, 
12-3, 
13-2, 
14-5, 
15-3

IBPS RRB Officers Scale I Question


IBPS RRB Officers Scale I Question Asked in Exam on 22nd September 2013 (Morning Shift) : Based on memory-

1) Treasury bills, Certificate of deposits, commercial papers traded in which market – Money market

2) About CSR- corporate social responsibility

3) GAAR is applicable from – 1st april 2016

4) India is going to trade in South east asian countries it is called – ASEAN

5) Who is the newly elected PM of Pakistan – NAWAZ SHARIEF

6) Sarajevo is the capital of - BOSNIA

7) HDI Index of Rank of India – 136

8)Nishi Vasudeva is the chairman of - HPCL

9) Who purchased the business of Royal bank of Scotland – Ratnakar Bank

10) Some thing about Insurance Broking permission as per the notification given by IRDA

11) PPF Max amount in a financial Year – 100000

12) E-Choupal is from Which Organization – ITC

13) Foreign trade policy annoued by – Ministry of commerce, Industry

14) Where is UNCTAD headquartered ? - Geneva

15) Swadhaar scheme is retated to – women in Difficult Circumstances

16) Highest award in Sport (India) – Rajiv KhelRatna

17) FCNR Account – Opend by NRI and IPO’s

18) About Asset Reconstruction Companies

19) Present Reverse Repo Rate – 6.5%

20) Father of Nuclear Programme -Homi J BABA

21) ESCAP HQ – Bangkok

22) Best Feature film in 60th IIFA Awards _ Pan singhThomar

23) Committee on Below Poverty line – Tendulkar Committee

24) Anoop Sridhar is famous for ? - BADMINTON

25) Sea of Pappies is Written by- AMITAV GHOSH

26) Question on KYC Norms

27) NPA’s limited to by the end of 2013-14 fiscal Year is – DoNT KNOW

28) FEMA was enacted in which year ? – 2000

29) ED is levied on

30) EFT means Electronic Funds Transfer

31) Banks didn’t allow loans Beyond – BASE RATE

32) Baht is the currency of which country ?- THAILAND

33) What is the base year for WPI(Wholesale Price Index)?- 2004-05

34) For participating in president election minimum age is 35 Years

35) Not a retail Banking Product

36) Who is called as the Lender of Last Resort – RBI

37) Fiscal Deficit in 2012-13 is 4.89%

38) Who is the chairman of SEBI ? – U.K.SINHA 

39) PMAEC chairman – Rangarajan


40) Who is the Telecom regulatory authority of India – TRAI

IBPS Banking Awareness Test - Part 1 (IBPS BANK PO)


On popular request we are presenting first part of banking awareness test.....

1.Which of the following is a private bank in India?
(A) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(B) Corporation Bank
(C) South Indian Bank
(D) Syndicate Bank
(E) Bank of Maharashtra

2.What is Rupee depreciation?
(a) Rupee depreciation means that rupee has become less valu¬able with respect to dolllar
(b) Rupee depreciation means dollar has become less valuable than rupee
(c)Rupee depreciation means a situation when value of rupee is same as euro
(d) Rupee depreciation happens when the combined value of dollar and euro is more than rupee
(e)None of these

3. Headquarter of ADB is situated in _
(a) Sanghai
(b) Manila
(c) Mali
(d) Geneva
(e)None of these

4. CRISIL is a _
(a) Credit rating agency
(b) Employment exchange watchdog
(c) Infrastructure sector guide
(d) Market regulator
(e)None of these

5. By Public Sector bank we mean
(a) Government ownership in bank
(b) Capitalist ownership in bank
(c) Private ownership in bank
(d) Both (1)and (3)
(e)None of these

6. ______ forms a part of the Interest Rate Policy
(a) Fiscal Policy
(b) Industrial Policy
(c) Monetary Policy
(d) Manufacturing Policy
(e)None of these

7. Credit cards are used for -
(a) Cash withdrawals
(b) Purchase of air tickets
(c) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

8. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(a) Y. S. P. Thorat
(b) Vijai L. Kelkar
(c) T. S. Vijayan
(d) Laxmi Narayan
(e) None of these

9. SEBI is a—
(a) Statutory body
(b) Advisory body
(c) Constitutional body
(d) Non-statutory body
(e) All of these

10. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—
(a) Public Account Committee
(b) Shivaraman Committee
(c) Narsimham Committee
(d) Chelliah Committee
(e) None of these

Solution. - 
Qns. Ans.

1)  c
2 ) a
3)  b
4)  a
5)  a
6)  c
7 ) d
8)  b
9)  a
10) b

IBPS PO 2012: Sample Paper for Reasoning



We are presenting a model paper for Reasoning Section of IBPS PO 2012. This paper is based on the pattern of IBPS PO Exam held in Sept, 2011. Try this test in 30 mins duration and post your score here.

Directions (1-7): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W from two families are taking breakfast around a round table. Three members are from one family and five belong to other family. Four of them are male members.
T, a male member is sitting second to right of V, a female member. In all cases R has same position with respect to S, who is second to left of Q, a female member. S is wife of W and is sitting adjacent to her husband. U is sister of W and is not sitting exactly between V and T. Q is immediate left of V. W is sitting immediate right of P.

1.       Which of the given statement is wrong?
(1) U is immediate right of S
(2) T is immediate left of P
(3) Q is sitting between U and V
(4) R is second to left of W
(5) V is second to right of U

2.       Who is second to the left of P?
(1) Q                                              (2) V  
(3) R                                               (4) S    
(5) U

3.       How many persons are sitting between P and Q when we count anticlockwise?
(1) 2                                               (2) 3    
(3) 4                                               (4) None
(5) Cannot be determined

4.       How many members are there in W’s family?
(1) 2                                               (3) 3    
(3) 5                                               (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

Directions (5-7): One out of five groups does not match on the basis of sitting arrangement. Find that group-
5.    
 (1) USQ                                        (2) RVT
(3) TRP                                          (4) WPS            
(5) None of these

6.       
'(1) TW                                           (2) PS
(3) WU                                          (4) SQ
(5) TV

7.      
 (1) V                                              (2) Q
(3) S                                               (4) U
(5) P

Directions (8-12): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
In a certain code ‘ge ji zo’ means ‘had horrible dream’, ‘lit zo pit’ means ‘realize your dream’ and ‘ge ze pat ze’ means ‘very very horrible experience’.

8.       Which of the following is the code for ‘your’?
(1) lit                                              (2) zo
(3) pit                                            (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

9.       ‘ji ze pit lit’ may represent-
(1) very horrible you realize                (2) you had realize your
(3) had realize your very       (4) your very realize dream
(5) your very very had

10.   ‘dream had horrible experience’, can be coded as:
(1) zo ge ji ze                              (2) pat ge zo ji
(3) zo ji ge pit                             (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

11.   Which of the following is the code for ‘very’?
(1) ge                                            (2) pat
(3) ze                                             (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

12.   Which of the following is the code of’ had’?
(1) ge                                            (2) ji
(3) zo                                             (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

Directions (13-17): In each of the questions /set of questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the two given conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statement. Give answer-

(1) If only Conclusion I follows.
(2) If only Conclusion II follows.
(3) If either Conclusion I or II follows.
(4) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(5) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

13.   Statements: All doors are windows. Some windows are clips.
Conclusions:
I. Some clips, if they are doors, they are also windows.
II. All chips which are not windows are also not doors.

(14-15):
Statements: No shoe is a chappal. Some chappals are sandals.
14.   Conclusions:
I. Some sandals are not chappals.
II. Sandals which are not chappals are shoes.

15.   Conclusions:
I. No sandal is a shoe.
II. Sandals which are chappals are not shoes.

16.   Statements: Some paints are red. All red which are paints are yellow.
Conclusions:
I. Some paints are yellow.
II. Some yellow are red.

17.   Statements: All sets are hot. All belts are hot.
Conclusions:
I. At least some seats are belts.
II. All hot are either seats or belts.

Directions (18-22): An arrangement machine when given an input of words, rearrange them following a particular rule and solve it.
Input: this chapter would give you basic concepts.
Step I: basic this chapter would give you concepts.
Step II: basic chapter this would give you concepts.
Step III: basic chapter concepts this would give you.
Step IV: basic chapter concepts give this would you.
Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:

18.   Input: adequate safety arrangements are must for kids.
Which of the following will be 2nd last step for the given input?
(1) adequate are arrangements for kids safety must.
(2) adequate are arrangements for kids must safety.
(3) adequate are safety arrangements must for kids.
(4) adequate safety are arrangements must for kids.
(5) None of these

19.   Input: do not imitate others work.
Which of the following will be step 3 for the given input?
(1) do others not imitate work.
(2) do imitate not others work.
(3) work do others not imitate.
(4) do not others work imitate.
(5) There should be no 3rd step.

20.   Input: Marcus Brauchli gives inaccurate information.
How many steps are required to rearrange the above input properly?
(1) 3                                               (2) 4
(3) 5                                               (4) 2
(5) None of these

21.   Input: most Indian leaders cannot even visualize free India.
Which of the following will be last step of the above input?
(1) most Indian even leaders cannot visualize free India.
(2) cannot even free India Indian most leaders visualize.
(3) cannot even free India most Indian leaders visualize.
(4) cannot even free India Indian leaders most visualize.
(5) None of these

22.   Step IV: it is figure anti-establishment from media.
Which of the following is the input of the above mentioned step?
(1) it is figure from anti-establishment media.
(2) media it is figure from anti-establishment.
(3) it is anti-establishment media from.
(4) Can’t be determined.
(5) None of these

Directions (23-27): Study the following arguments and distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments because they relate to the question. ‘Strong’ arguments are these which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also not directly related to the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the argument is a ‘strong’ and ‘weak’. Give answer-
(1) If only argument I is ‘strong’.
(2) If only argument II is ‘strong’.
(3) If either I or II is ‘strong’.
(4) If neither I nor II is ‘strong’.
(5) If both I and II are ‘strong’.

23.   Statement: Should the government punish those schools which charge high admission fee?
Arguments:
I. Yes, where will the poor students go?
II. Yes, education has become more of a business than a pious commitment.

24.   Statement: Should there be a quota for those who are poor?
Arguments:
I. Yes, This will decrease the level of unemployment and poor people will not be discriminated by upper caste.
II. No, we already have reservations in our jobs.

25.   Statement: Should there be no place for interview in selection?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is a difficult part of selection.
II. No, it is the only way to judge the candidates personality and motives.

26.   Statement: Should women be provided more job opportunities?
Arguments:
I. Yes, they should go into the outside world.
II. No, they are not interested in jobs.

27.   Statement: Should government provide more benefits to those who are the only child of their parents?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it will control increase of population.
II. Yes, it will given them bright future and love of parents.

Directions (28-31): In these questions, a statement is given, which is followed by various assumptions. Read the statements and the assumptions and decide which one of them is implicit.
28.   Statement: “Ensure freedom from thieves with this car locking system”.
Assumptions:
I. This car locking system is the best.
II. It is desired to have freedom from thieves.
III. There are thieves everywhere.

(1) I and II are implicit             (2) II and III are implicit
(3) I and III are implicit           (4) only II is implicit
(5) All I, II and III are implicit

29.   Statement: “We deal in used cars. Contact us at phone no. XYZ, at the earliest possible” – an advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Some people want to sell old cars.
II. The advertisement will be read by the needy people.
III. Used cars may not be usually useless.

(1) Only I is implicit              
(2) Only II and III are implicit
(3) Only I and III are implicit
(4) All I, II, III are implicit
(5) None of I, II, III are implicit.

30.   Statement: “Lalu Prasad is expected to announce several schemes for poor people in the budget” – a news reporter.
Assumptions:
I. The reporter has a fair reporting.
II. The news-reporter has genuine report sources.
III. Lalu Prasad is capable of announcing schemes.
(1) I and II are implicit             (2) II and III are implicit
(3) Only III is implicit                (4) All are implicit
(5) None is implicit

31.   Statement: Mr. X tells Mrs. X: “I cannot send my child to that school. Children over there smoke and drink.”
Assumptions:
I. Smoking and drinking are not desirable of children.
II. Their child will agree to their decision.
III. The school has a good reputation.

(1) I and II are implicit             (2) II and III are implicit
(3)III and I are implicit            (4) only I is implicit
(5) All I, II, III are implicit

Directions (32-36): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer-
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

32.   How many sisters does Priya have?
I. Rohan, Priya’s brother has only two siblings.
II. Priya’s grandparents have two children and two granddaughters.

33.      On which day of the week was Shahid born?
I. Shashid’s mother correctly mentions that he was born before Friday and after Tuesday.
II. Shahid’s after correctly remembers that Shahid was not born on a Wednesday.

34.      Who is the haviest amongst P, Q, R, S and T?
I. R is heavier than Q but not as heavy as T
II. P is heavier only than S.

35.      Is the time in the clock 3 o’clock now?
I. After fifteen minutes, the minute and the hour hands of the clock will make a straight line.
II. The train which is running late by exactly three hours from its scheduled time of arrival i.e. 11 am has reached now.

36.      How is got coded in the language?
I. ‘I got good marks’ is written as ‘pe lit a so’ and ‘she has got cold’ is written as ‘je ra so ki’ in the code language.
II. ‘What have you got’ is written as ‘de wd so me’ and ‘Brazil got four goats’ is written as ‘di bi fe so’ in the code language.

37.   SINK is related to FLOAT in the same way as a DESTROY is related to…….
(1) ENEMY                                 (2) DEMOLISH
(3) ALIVE                                    (4) PEACE
(5) CREATE

38.      Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group which one does not belong to the group?
(1) BLOCK                                  (2) HAMPER
(3) IMPEDE                               (4) AVOID
(5) OBSTRUCT

39.      This of the following figures represents the relation between ‘Gas’ water and helium?

40.      What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series?
AC    DG    HL    MR    ?
(1) SY                                           (2) TZ                  
(3) RX                                          (4) SX
(5) SZ

41.      If each odd digit in the number 813246 is multiplied by three and each even digit is divided by two, what will be the difference between the digit which are third from the left and third from the right of the new number thus formed?
(1) 1                                             (2) 2
(3) 3                                             (4) 7
(5) 8

42.      If each alphabet in the word ABSOLUTE is arranged in alphabetical order (from left to right) and then each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to previous letter in English alphabetical series. Which of the following will be sixth from the left side of the new arrangement thus formed?
(1) F                                             (2) R
(3) V                                                            (4) S
(5) K

43.      How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SAMPLER each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None                                    (2) One
(3) Two                                       (4) Three
(5) More than three

44.      In a certain code ‘SHORE’ is coded as ‘QFMPC’ in the same code ___ will be coded as ‘WNDGL’.
(1) NIMPY                                 (2) YPMIN
(3) ULIEJ                                     (4) ULIJE
(5) JEILU

45.      The question given below is based on the given diagram. You have to take the given diagram to be true even if it seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the five alternatives following question logically follows from the given diagram.

Which of the following represents the graduate population which is not employed in B.P.O.?
(1) A and B                                                (2) Only C
(3) B and D                                                (4) Only D
(5) B and E

Directions (46-50): Each of the following questions consist of five figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) called the Problem Figures followed by five other figures marked (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.


Specialist Officer Model Paper (IT Professional Knowledge)


1.     A Passive threat to computer security is-
(1) Malicious Intent               (2) Sabotage
(3) Accidental Errors             (4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these

2.          ____ allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail.
(1) TCP/IP                                  (2) Ethernet
(3) WAP                                     (4) Token ring
(5) None of these

3.          ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have____.
(1) A Boot Record                  (2) A File Allocation Table
(3) A Root Directory              (4) Virtual Memory
(5) BIOS

4.          ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to ____.
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of these

5.          All the information collected during database development is stored in a ____.
(1) repository                          (2) data warehouse
(3) RAD                                       (4) CASE
(5) None of these

6.          The ____ component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(1) data extraction                 (2) end-user query tool
(3) end-user presentation tool
(4) data store                           (5) None of these

7.          The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is ____.
(1) Biometrics                          (2) Compression
(3) Encryption                          (4) Ergonomics
(5) None of these

8.          The word FTP stands for-
(1) File Transfer Protocol    (2) File Transit Protocol
(3) File Typing Protocol        (4) File Transfer Protocol
(5) None of these

9.          This ____ tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(1) Client                
(2) Applications/Web server
(3) Enterprise server            (4) DBA
(5) None of these

10.      A DVD-RAM is similar to a ____, except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
(1) CD-R                                     (2) Floppy disk
(3) CD-RW                                 (4) Hard disk
(5) None of these

11.      All of the following are basic principles of networks, except-
(1) each computer must have a network card
(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(3) there must be at least one connecting device
(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(5) None of these

12.      ____ are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(1) Cookies                               (2) Plug-ins
(3) Scripts                                  (4) ASPs
(5) None of these

13.      If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP                                       (2) RARP
(3) ICMP                                    (4) PING
(5) PONG

14.      The term, ‘hypertext’ means-
(1) Non-sequential writing (2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text  
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these

15.      Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher                                  (2) Warded
(3) Device                                  (4) Tumbler
(5) Type lock

16.      What is the name of protocol used in eliminate loops?
(1) Switching                            (2) ISL
(3) Frame tagging                   (4) Spanning Tree Protocol
(5) None of these

17.      In networking terminology UTP means –
(1) Unshielded Twisted Pair
(2) Ubiquitous Teflon Port
(3) Uniformly Terminating Port
(4) Unshielded T-Connector
(5) None of these

18.      In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of-
(1) Session layer                     (2) Network layer
(3) Transport layer                 (4) Data link layer
(5) None of the above

19.      A ‘C’ data structure called a structure is a group of items in which each item is identified by its own identifier, each of which is known as a member of a structure. Member is also known as-
(1) Information                       (2) Field
(3) Record                                 (4) Data type
(5) None of these

20.      Multithread means-
(1) Program do more than one thing at a time
(2) More than one program do one thing at a time
(3) Both are correct               (4) Both are incorrect
(5) None of these

21.      A page fault occurs?
(1) when the page is not in the memory
(2) when the page is in  the memory
(3) when the process enters the blocked state
(4) when the process is in the ready state
(5) None of these

22.      “Each packet contains the full source and destination address.” This statement indicates which of the following?
(1) Virtual Circuit                    (2) Datagram
(3) Data link                              (4) FDDI
(5) None of these

23.      Data bus is-
(1) Unidirectional                   (2) Bidirectional
(3) Both (1) & (2)                    (4) Multidirectional
(5) None of these

24.      Which of the following is a type of ISDN (Integrated Service Digital Network)?
(1) Narrow bank                     (2) Broad band
(3) Both (1) & (2)                    (4) Virtual Circuit
(5) None of these

25.      Which of the following is a browser to view a web page?
(1) Mosaic                                 (2) Netscape
(3) Internet Explorer            (4) All of the above
(5) None of these

26.      A graph is a collection of-
(1) Row and columns            (2) Vertices and edges
(3) Equations                           (4) Identity
(5) None of these

27.      CDMA is used in-
(1) Wireless and local loop
(2) Allocating a wireless channel
(3) Both (1) & (2)                    (4) Local loop
(5) None of these

28.      Number of arcs incident to a node is called its-
(1) Level                                     (2) Predecessor
(3) Degree                                                (4) Successor
(5) None of these

29.      OSPF means-
(1) Open shortest path finite protocol
(2) Open shortest path finite protocol
(3) Open slotted path finite protocol
(4) Open slotted path first protocol
(5) None of these

30.      Binding the same name to multiple operations whose signatures differ in number or types of arguments?
(1) Overloading                       (2) Origin class
(3) Object model                    (4) Package
(5) None of these

31.      What is the name of the chip which has more than one processor on it?
(1) Parallel chip                       (2) Multi-processor chip
(3) Transputer                         (4) Parallel processor
(5) None of these

32.      In windows-
(1) Docking views may be docked
(2) Docking views may be float
(3) Docking views may be docked or float
(4) All of the above                               (4) None of these

33.      ____ performs relocations function?
(1) Absolute loader               (2) Direct linking loader
(3) Relocating loader            (4) Linkage editor
(5) None of these

34.      A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a-
(1) Bus network                      (2) Ring network
(3) Star network                     (4) All of the above
(5) None of these

35.      Segmentation –
(1) is a memory management scheme that supports user view of memory
(2) logical address space is collection of segments
(3) logical address consists of two tuple < segment-number, offset>.
(4) All of the above                               (5) None of these

36.      Which of the following is a major component of the telephone system?
(1) Local loop                           (2) Trunks
(3) Switching office                               (4) All of these
(5) None of these

37.      Function is invoked by-
(1) Function                              (2) Declaration
(3) Definition                           (4) Prototype
(5) None of these

38.      The ACCEPT command in SQL?
(1) Creates a customized prompt when accepting user input
(2) Explicitly defines a NUMBER or DATE data type variable
(3) Hides user input for security reasons
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these

39.      How many fields are required to represent a header node of a graph?
(1) 3                                             (2) 2
(3) 4                                             (4) 5
(5) None of these

40.      Which of the following is not used as a data structure?
(1) Array                                    (2) Linked list
(3) Graph                                   (4) Directory
(5) None of these

41.      Which of the following is an operating system call?
(1) CREATE                                                (2) LINK
(3) SYSTEM                               (4) All of these
(5) None of these

42.      In C++, by default, the members of a class are-
(1) Public                                   (2) Private
(3) Both public and private (4) Only Public
(5) None of these

43.      In core banking systems:
(1) Store and forward of transaction is done
(2) Branch server is not required
(3) Local database is not required
(4) Transaction cannot happen from a non-home branch
(5) None of these

44.      MV command in Unix changes-
(1) Only the directory
(2) Only the directory entry and i-node
(3) Only the i-node number
(4) All of the above                               (5) None of these

45.      E-Commerce refers to-
(1) Electrical commerce       (2) Electronic commerce
(3) Evolutionary commerce            
(4) Effective commerce       (5) None of these

46.      Graphs can be implemented using-
(i) Arrays    (ii) Linked list      (iii) Stack              (iv) Queue
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)                   (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)                          (4) (i) and (iv)
(5) None of these

47.      Thrashing-
(1) Always occur on large computers
(2) is a natural consequence of virtual memory systems
(3) Can always be avoided by swapping
(4) Can be caused by poor paging algorithm
(5) None of these

48.      The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving computer is referred as-
(1) modulation                        (2) demodulation
(3) synchronizing                    (4) digitizing
(5) None of these

49.      The relational database environment has all of the following components except-
(1) Users                                    (2) Separate files
(3) Database                            (4) Database administrator
(5) None of these

50.      Primary key-
(1) Denote a candidate key that is chosen by the database designer as the principal means of identifying entities with in an entity set
(2) Attributes names of all primary key are unique
(3) Primary key specification is optional and good idea to specify primary key for each relation
(4) All of the above                               (5) None of these

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